Resolved question:
I have done the pap + HPV test and the result is as below;
Possible low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion + detected high risk,
For HPV types: the DNA of any one of, or combination of : 16,18,31,33,35,39,45,51,52,56,58,59,66,68.
I have done the test as my partner told me he thinks he has genital warts, and I have found that I had something as well. It turned out that I have genital warts and so does he.
But I have researched on the web and found out that only HPV type 6 and 11 contributes in causing genital warts in both men and women. But then how do I have it when I do not have HPV type 6 and 11?! Is it correct?
My boyfriend has not done any biopsy or test to find out which type he has. However he does not think he would have the same type as me due to searching on the web, he also found out that only HPV type 6 and 11 contributes in causing genital warts.
* We usually haven't used any protection (eg condoms). Is it possible that he has different type of HPV from me?
Submitted:
4 Days
Category:
OBGYN
Hello
Thanks for writing to us at DoctorSpring.com with your health concern.
HPV types which cause cervical lesions are the high risk types, which have been identified in the Pap smear.
THe HPV types that cause genital warts are generally type 6 and 11 ( in 90 % of cases ). However, at present there is no test commonly available that can pick up these strains from the genital warts.
Also, testing in men is in the research stage, so that is ruled out. The genital warts are clinically diagnosed, not by a biopsy or test.
Warts are clinically diagnosed, and it is assumed that it is due to the types 6 and 11.
Pap smear would not pick those up generally, as it identifies the HPV strains causing the cervical changes.
If you both are sexually active, and both of you are having genital warts, then you both would be harbouring types 6 and 11 only.
I hope this answer clarifies things.
Take care.
Please feel free to discuss or ask further.