Resolved question:
I was recently diagnosed with genital herpes. According to my OB/GYN it is a recent infection due to their not being any antibodies in my blood. It is definitely the first outbreak I've ever had. I have not had sex with anyone but my partner in the last two years, however, when he went to get tested he was told that he does not have herpes based on a blood test. How is this possible? I understand that herpes can lay dormant in your body for years and then an outbreak occurs, however, according to my Dr. this is a new infection. So I don't understand how he doesn't have it and I do. I did have a blood test done and it came back negative for HSV2, however, a swab culture of one of the sores came back positive for Herpes. Also he and I had sex for two days when I had this outbreak before I realized there was something going on so let's say he didn't have it before what are his chances of developing it now?
Submitted:
4 Days
Category:
Sexually Transmitted Diseases(STD)Specialist
Hello. Thank you for your query at DoctorSpring.com. I understand your concern and will do my best to help you. If your doctor has told that what you have is a recent infection, then the most probable way you would have contracted is through your partner. If he has tested negative, then an uncommon possibility exists if you have had oral cold sores earlier. Cold sores are caused by HSV1(Herpes Simplex Virus type1). HSV1 can rarely lead to genital herpes by auto-inoculation(self transmission). In this case you will have positive blood test for HSV1. Has this test been done for you? The chances of your partner developing a new herpes infection after that exposure is about 50 %. If you could upload all the your and your partner's test results, it would be very helpful and I could get a much clearer picture. Thank you.