Resolved question:
My girlfriend has had an occasional dull pain in her right pelvic area the last few days (mostly when walking), and during sex last next she said she felt a semi-painful sensation when I "hit" a certain area. It sounded like possible PID. I had unprotected sex with another woman three times (once in Dec, Jan, & Feb). She was all clear on STD tests in both November and January (she gets them regularly at Planned Parenthood). I was nonetheless nervous and got tested this week and was negative.
Is it possible, with our negative tests, that I still contracted chlamydia or gonorrhea from her during this time (she had protected sex with someone else) and quickly naturally eliminated it from my body after passing it to my girlfriend (which could've then become PID)? Or am I conflating my girlfriend's symptoms?
Submitted:
4 Days
Category:
OBGYN
Hello,
Thanks for posting your query at DoctorSpring.com
What you say is a possibility.
You might have acquired it from the other woman, and not having had any symptoms yourself, passed it on to your girlfriend.
On the other hand, not all pelvic infections are sexually acquired.
Some can arise de novo.
Also, pelvic infection is the first diagnostic possibility.
Others , would be - a cervical lesion, or a fibroid, ovarian cyst etc.
It is best to have an evaluation before speculating.
The evaluation would ideally include -
1. Internal exam by an OB - GYN
2. Pap smear.
3. Vaginal swab and culture to rule out infection.
4. PElvic ultrasound scan.
All the best
Please feel free to discuss further.
Regards.
Thank you for your prompt reply and the detailed information you provided. My girlfriend will likely go to have an exam this week so that she can know exactly what the issue is.
A small update — the other woman I was with just got tested for STIs at my prompting and her results were, once again, negative. Given that she tested negative in November, January, and just now, and I also just tested negative, would it be unlikely that she had chlamydia or gonorrhea (having only had protected sex a few times with one partner) within that timeframe and passed it to me, and then we both would've naturally cleared it up before tests could detect it? I realize that it's absoultely a possibility — I'm just wondering about the probability.
Again, I thank you for your time and information.
What you describe is possible, but not very probable.
If she has tested negative now ( march ) and was negative in January, then one month is too little time for this sequence to have happened - her having acquired it, having passed it on to you, and both of you having cleared it up so fast.
I think this is a de novo infection she is having, or another issue altogether.
Let me know how the workup goes.
Thank you for the appreciation.
Take care.